The Anti-Nazi Boycott of 1933 was a boycott of German products by foreign critics of the Nazi Party in response to antisemitism in Nazi Germany following the rise of Adolf Hitler, commencing with his appointment as Chancellor of Germany on January 30, 1933. Those in the United Kingdom, United States and other places worldwide who opposed Hitler’s policies, developed the boycott and its accompanying protests to encourage Nazi Germany to end the regime’s often-expressed anti-Jewish attitude.
So is boycott a legitimate means to express opposition …or not?
And embargoes? Are they legitimate policy… or not?